Staff Nurse Grade II Exam Conducted on 21 Mar 2023 | Solved Questions | Mock Test | 52/2023/OL

Question Paper Code : 52/2023/OL, Category Code : 274/2022, Exam : Staff Nurse Grade II (SR for SC/ST), Medium of Question : English, Exam Date : 21 Mar 2023, Department : Health Service.

Time: 1:15:00

_________ is a polypeptide hormone produced by parafollicular C-cells of Thyroid gland.

[a] Calcitonin.

[b] Thyroxine.

[c] Tri-iodothyronine.

[d] Parathormone.

_________ is Cranial Nerve V.

[a] Olfactory Nerve.

[b] Optic Nerve.

[c] Facial Nerve.

[d] Trigeminal Nerve.

The amount of filtrate formed in all the nephrons of both kidneys in one minute is termed as

[a] Filtration Fraction.

[b] Glomerular Filtration Rate.

[c] Glomerular capillary pressure.

[d] Colloidal osmotic pressure.

The longest and strongest bone of the body is

[a] Radius.

[b] Femur.

[c] Ulna.

[d] Scapula.

Pepsinogen is secreted by

[a] Chief cells.

[b] Parietal cells.

[c] Goblet cells.

[d] Pancreas.

Bacillus of tuberculosis was discovered by

[a] Neisser.

[b] Hansen.

[c] Robert Koch.

[d] Joseph Lister.

Normal Flora which lie on or in our body with complete harmony without causing damage is called

[a] Saprophytes.

[b] Commensals.

[c] True pathogens.

[d] Facultative pathogens.

Spherical or oval shaped bacteria are classified as

[a] Bacilli.

[b] Spirilla.

[c] Vibrios.

[d] Cocci.

Infectious diseases transmitted from animals to human beings is called

[a] Opportunistic infection.

[b] Vertical transmission.

[c] Zoonoses.

[d] Nosocomial infection.

Modified Acid fast staining commonly used for staining mycobacterium tuberculosis is

[a] Ziehl Neelsen staining.

[b] Gram staining.

[c] Negative staining.

[d] None of the above.

The most primitive structure of human personality operating according to the pleasure principle is called

[a] Ego.

[b] Id.

[c] Super Ego.

[d] Conscious level.

Intelligence Quotient is

[a] Mental Age/Chronological Age × 100.

[b] Retrieval.

[c] Chronological Age/Mental Age × 100.

[d] None of the above.

The ego defence mechanism in which unconsciously discharging pent-up feelings to a less threatening object is

[a] Repression.

[b] Denial.

[c] Displacement.

[d] Conversion.

Misinterpretation of actual perception is

[a] Hallucination.

[b] Illusion.

[c] Limited attention.

[d] Perceptual organization.

An automatic learned behaviour pattern that enables an individual to handle specific types of environmental situations easily is termed as

[a] Perception.

[b] Attention.

[c] Memory.

[d] habits.

The process of learning that enables the learner to perform social roles and ability to participate in social system is

[a] Socialisation.

[b] Group Morale.

[c] Social change.

[d] Social Security.

The type of family in which mother plays a dominant role in the family is

[a] Matrilocal family.

[b] Matriarchal family.

[c] Patrilocal family.

[d] Patriarchal family.

The type of marriage in which one woman marries several men is

[a] Monogamy marriage.

[b] Polyandry marriage.

[c] Group marriage.

[d] Polygyny marriage.

The type of family which consists of blood relations together with their mates and their children is

[a] Conjugal family.

[b] Neolocal family.

[c] Consanguineous family.

[d] Avunculocal family.

A social group with 'we feeling' and living in a given area is

[a] Family.

[b] Society.

[c] Race.

[d] Community.

The first step to be followed by a health care worker who sustained a needle-stick injury.

[a] Inform the supervisor immediately.

[b] Squeeze the area and expel the blood.

[c] Wash with soap and water.

[d] Clean with povidone iodine and cover the area.

The method of disposal of Discarded Medicines and Cytotoxic drugs (outdated, contaminated and discarded medicines)

[a] Autoclaving after mutilation/shredding.

[b] Secured land fill after mutilation/shredding.

[c] Incineration without mutilation/shredding.

[d] Microwaving without mutilation/shredding.

While discussing about post exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B infection, the correct procedure of Post Exposure Prophylaxis for an unvaccinated health care worker and the source is unknown as

[a] Complete the 3 doses vaccination in 0-1-3 doses.

[b] Administer 2 doses of hepatitis B immunoglobulin one month apart.

[c] Administer 1 dose of hepatitis B immunoglobulin and complete vaccination in 0-1-3 doses.

[d] Administer 2 doses of hepatitis B immunoglobulin one month apart and complete vaccination in 0-1-3 doses.

Weil-Felix reaction is used to diagnose disease caused by

[a] Rickettsiae.

[b] Mycoplasma.

[c] Chlamydia.

[d] Clostridia.

Best procedure for managing upper airway obstruction in an infant is

[a] Heimlich manure.

[b] 5 back slaps and 5 chest thrusts.

[c] Black slaps continuously till objects expelled out.

[d] Abdominal compression.

What should rescuer do after the Automated External Defibrillator delivers shock while doing BLS/ACLS ?

[a] Immediately check the carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds.

[b] Immediately restart CPR, beginning with chest compressions.

[c] Wait for the AED to reanalyze the rhythm.

[d] Provide 2 breaths to the victim.

Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to assess in hypercalcemia ?

[a] Prolonged QRS complex.

[b] Tetany.

[c] Petechiae.

[d] Urinary calculi.

A client with End Stage Renal Disease is admitted in nephrology ward and his blood result shows Serum Potassium as 6.6 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess first ?

[a] Cardiac rhythm.

[b] Blood pressure.

[c] Respirations.

[d] Urine output.

In a health education session, a nurse explains reasons for chronic cough except

[a] Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.

[b] Chronic smoking.

[c] Beta blockers.

[d] Chronic bronchitis.

The best indicator for identifying the adequacy of fluid replacement therapy in acute phase of burns

[a] Serum Potassium level.

[b] Serum sodium.

[c] Sunken eyes and skin turgor.

[d] Urine output.

Which of the following is not a primary prevention ?

[a] Pulse polio immunisation.

[b] Vitamin A supplementation.

[c] Breast self-examination for tumour.

[d] Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breastfed by a sputum positive tubercular mother.

Which is the best measure for evaluating standards of therapy ?

[a] Specific Death Rate.

[b] Case Fatality Rate.

[c] Survival Rate.

[d] Crude Death Rate.

The first person becoming sick in an epidemic is called

[a] Index case.

[b] Primary case.

[c] Secondary case.

[d] None of the above.

Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is

[a] Rubella.

[b] Typhoid.

[c] Diphtheria.

[d] Hepatitis B.

Commonest agent causing diarrhoeal diseases in infants and children is

[a] Escherichia coli.

[b] Rotavirus.

[c] Vibrio Cholerae.

[d] Salmonella.

All are true about an 'Ideal contraceptive' except

[a] Safe and inexpensive.

[b] Irreversible.

[c] Independent of coitus.

[d] Does not require frequent administration.

All of the following are food fortifications except

[a] Iodization of salt.

[b] Addition of Vitamins A and D to vanaspati ghee.

[c] Addition of colour to saccharin.

[d] Addition of iron to wheat flour.

Which of the following vitamins functions like a steroid hormone ?

[a] Vitamin A.

[b] Vitamin B1.

[c] Vitamin C.

[d] Vitamin D.

Which of the following mineral element causes pathological changes in bones and teeth in its excess as well as deficiency ?

[a] Chlorine.

[b] Fluorine.

[c] Zinc.

[d] Copper.

Name the program introduced by Govt. of Kerala for differently abled persons for rehabilitation in 2017 ?

[a] Kaithangu.

[b] Ardram.

[c] Kaivalya.

[d] Athijeevanam.

Normal ET `CO_(2)` value of an intubated patient is

[a] 60 - 70 mm of Hg.

[b] 35 - 45 mm of Hg.

[c] 20 - 30 mm of Hg.

[d] 25 - 35 mm of Hg.

Metabolic emergency frequently found in Small Cell Lung Cancer is

[a] SIADH.

[b] Hypercalcaemia.

[c] Metabolic encephalopathy.

[d] Tumour Lysis Syndrome.

Immune reaction occurring in blood transfusion reaction is a type of

[a] Microangiopathic reaction.

[b] Auto immune reaction.

[c] Macroangiopathic reaction.

[d] Isoimmune reaction.

Post Myocardial Infarction patient if complaints of chest pain increasing with deep breath, which nursing action is appropriate ?

[a] Obtain vital signs and auscultate for pericardial friction rub.

[b] Obtain 12 lead ECG and inform physician immediately.

[c] Give high flow oxygen.

[d] Give SOS analgesic and observe for 30 minutes.

A patient after gastrectomy complaints of sweating, weakness, palpitation and dizziness 15-30 minutes after eating, which among the following is the best advice to give ?

[a] Reduce fat and protein in diet.

[b] Have three regular full meals.

[c] Don't take fluids with meals but 30-45 minutes before or after meals.

[d] Have a concentrated sweet dish after meal.

Lowest possible dose of Epoetin alpha is used to treat anaemia in chronic kidney disease because

[a] High dose is associated with high rate of thromboembolic events.

[b] It is highly hypersensitive.

[c] Minimum dose can stimulate erythropoietin production and it is costly.

[d] It is nephrotoxic in nature.

Accumulation of hydrophilic mucopolysaccharides in the dermis and other tissues is seen in

[a] Scleroderma.

[b] Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.

[c] Elephantiasis.

[d] Myxoedema.

ABG value of a patient shows pH 7.0, `PaO_(2)` 90 mmHg, `PaCO_(2)` 23 mmHg, `HCO_(3)` 12 mEq/L. What does it indicate ?

[a] Compensated Respiratory Acidosis.

[b] Uncompensated metabolic acidosis.

[c] Partly compensated metabolic acidosis.

[d] Partly compensated respiratory acidosis.

A patient complaints of drawing sensation on one side of the face followed by paralysis of all ipsilateral muscles is admitted to your unit. Which among the following is the most possible diagnosis ?

[a] Tic douloureux.

[b] Bell's palsy.

[c] Meniere's disease.

[d] Glossopharyngeal neuralgia.

Pterygium can be defined as

[a] White deposits found on the cornea.

[b] Fleshy triangular shaped growth on the conjunctiva.

[c] Cyst found on the conjunctiva.

[d] Scarring of the cornea.

A mental health nurse adopts role play or sociodrama for facilitating insight into client's behaviour. The most appropriate principle used is

[a] Avoid unnecessary increase in the client's anxiety.

[b] Use self-understanding as a therapeutic tool.

[c] Change the patient's behaviour through emotional experience, not by rational interpretation.

[d] Objective observation is used to understand client's behaviour.

False fixed belief which can be explained as arising from other abnormal experiences is called

[a] Unspecified delusion.

[b] Primary delusion.

[c] Autochthonous delusion.

[d] Secondary delusion.

A nurse while being with a client with violent behaviour should NOT

[a] Provide high calorie foods.

[b] Argue with the client.

[c] Provide a consistent, structured environment.

[d] Give simple direct instructions.

During the working phase of nurse patient relationship, the mentally ill client breaks appointment, comes late to the therapy and being forgetful. The nurse identifies that this behaviour is an example of

[a] Resistance.

[b] Countertransference.

[c] Transference.

[d] Boundary violation.

A client receiving antipsychotic developed neuroleptic malignant syndrome. The dopamine agonist drug usually administered is

[a] Dantrolene.

[b] Bromocriptine.

[c] Pacitane.

[d] Metaclopromide.

A person persistently wears clothes of the opposite sex actually or in fantasy for sexual arousal. This disorder is

[a] Dual role transvestism.

[b] Primary transexualism.

[c] Secondary transexualism.

[d] Fetishistic transvestism.

A client with schizophrenia presents with negative symptoms. The nurse understands that one of the following is not a negative symptom

[a] Attentional impairment.

[b] Asociality.

[c] Alogia.

[d] Ambivalence.

A child presents with low par accuracy in the use of speech sounds. The speech sounds are omitted or substituted. This disorder is

[a] Dyslexia.

[b] Dysorthographia.

[c] Dyslalia.

[d] Dyspraxia.

A known alcoholic client, admitted to deaddiction centre has been started on disulfiram. The usual dose of disulfiram is

[a] 250 mg - 500 mg.

[b] 750 mg - 1000 mg.

[c] 50 mg - 100 mg.

[d] 100 mg - 200 mg.

The nurse renders parental skill training during antenatal and postnatal visit. This approach is

[a] Secondary prevention.

[b] Primary prevention.

[c] Tertiary prevention.

[d] Primordial prevention.

The birth weight of a baby triples by

[a] 8 months.

[b] 9 months.

[c] 12 months.

[d] 6 months.

The cardinal features of nephrotic syndrome are the following except

[a] Oedema.

[b] Hypoalbuminaemia.

[c] Proteinuria.

[d] Hyponatraemia.

Congenital malformation in which urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis

[a] Hypo spadias.

[b] Epispadias.

[c] Phimosis.

[d] Ectopia vesica.

APGAR score consists of the following components except

[a] Heart rate.

[b] Respiration.

[c] Temperature.

[d] Muscle tone.

The rate of chest compression to ventilation ratio for newborn resuscitation is

[a] 3 : 1.

[b] 1 : 3.

[c] 3 : 2.

[d] 2 : 1.

Which among the following factor is closely associated with retinopathy of prematurity ?

[a] Congenital anomalies.

[b] Low birth weight.

[c] Sepsis.

[d] Phototherapy.

Congenital anomaly characterised by a ganglionic segment of bowel.

[a] Intestinal atresia.

[b] Volvulus.

[c] Hirschsprungs disease.

[d] Intussusception.

Markedly retarded growth, psychomotor changes and oedema are essential features of

[a] Kwashiorkor.

[b] Marasmus.

[c] Tetanus.

[d] Pellagra.

The following are components of oral rehydration solution except

[a] Potassium chloride.

[b] Sodium chloride.

[c] Potassium citrate.

[d] Sodium citrate.

An acute infectious disease caused by entero-virus

[a] Poliomyelitis.

[b] Diphtheria.

[c] Typhoid fever.

[d] Mumps.

Nuchal translucency in USG is a strong marker of

[a] Down's syndrome.

[b] IUGR.

[c] IUD.

[d] Fetal macrosomia.

Serum hCG will not show characteristic rise in

[a] Multiple pregnancy.

[b] Molar pregnancy.

[c] Ectopic pregnancy.

[d] Normal pregnancy.

Which is the leading cause of MMR in India ?

[a] Haemorrhage.

[b] Sepsis.

[c] Unsafe abortion.

[d] Eclampsia.

Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy during first trimester?

[a] Hegar's sign.

[b] USG evidence of embryo.

[c] Osiander's sign.

[d] Chadwick's sign.

Detection of which immunoglobulin by cordocentesis indicates intrauterine infection

[a] IgA.

[b] IgG.

[c] IgM.

[d] IgE.

Which is the shortest diameter of pelvic inlet ?

[a] Antero posterior diameter.

[b] Transverse diameter.

[c] Oblique diameter.

[d] Sacrocotyloid diameter.

All of the following are haematological changes during pregnancy except

[a] Blood volume increases.

[b] Total Hb increases.

[c] Haematocrit increases.

[d] Plasma volume increases.

Maternal component of placenta is developed from which layer ?

[a] Decidua basalis.

[b] Decidua parietalis.

[c] Decidua capsularis.

[d] Chorion frondosum.

By which process glucose is transferred to the fetus ?

[a] Simple diffusion.

[b] Facilitated diffusion.

[c] Pinocytosis.

[d] Active transport.

Which is the most commonly used inhalation analgesia in labour ?

[a] Entonox.

[b] Nitric oxide.

[c] Meptazinol.

[d] Diamorphine.

The method and practice of teaching adult learners is termed as

[a] Andragogy.

[b] Pedagogy.

[c] Heutagogy.

[d] None.

Harmonious blend of the diverse philosophies of Education refers to

[a] Eclecticism.

[b] Naturalism.

[c] Idealism.

[d] Realism.

A formal tentative statement of the expected relationship between two or more variables under a research study is

[a] Research problem.

[b] Research design.

[c] Hypothesis.

[d] Abstract.

Brief description of events or situations to which respondents are asked to react and provide information about how they would handle the situation described in research is

[a] Q Sorts.

[b] Vignettes.

[c] Semantic differential scale.

[d] Ecologic momentary assessment.

The subjects may behave in a particular manner because they are aware of them being observed in Research is __________ effect.

[a] Hawthorne.

[b] Experimental.

[c] Novelty.

[d] Halo effect.

Recruiting all the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specified time interval or for a specified sample size for research is a __________ sampling.

[a] Cluster.

[b] Stratified.

[c] Systematic.

[d] Consecutive.

Ethical principle that empower persons to make free decisions can be implemented by

[a] Consent.

[b] Matching.

[c] Randomising.

[d] Confounding.

The qualitative research approach is to trace out precisely the live experience of people is __________ research.

[a] Grounded theory.

[b] Ethnographic.

[c] Phenomenological.

[d] Historical.

The extent to which an instrument consistently measures a concept in a research study is known as

[a] Validy.

[b] Reliability.

[c] Triangulation.

[d] Lambda.

The purpose statement in research should identify the study variables and

[a] Design.

[b] Data collection tool.

[c] Statistical method.

[d] Population.

The process of choosing right candidate for the right job in management process is known as

[a] Selection.

[b] Recruitment.

[c] Induction.

[d] Promotion.

The type of leadership style where the leaders seeks opinions and suggestions from followers in management process is

[a] Authoritarian.

[b] Laissez-faire.

[c] Bureaucratic.

[d] Democratic.

What is the Nurse-Patient ratio in an intensive care unit of a hospital, __________ as per Indian Nursing Council.

[a] 1 : 5.

[b] 1 : 3.

[c] 1 : 1.

[d] 1 : 10.

The force that prompts the individuals to observe rules, regulations, standards, procedures necessary for an organisation is

[a] Authority.

[b] Discipline.

[c] Power.

[d] Delegation.

Barriers of communication arising from the linguistic capacity of the sender and receiver is known as __________ barrier.

[a] Organisational.

[b] Psychological.

[c] Mechanical.

[d] Semantic.

In management process the inventory that expires or loses its value overtime and eventually becoming worthless is termed as __________ items.

[a] Perishable.

[b] Non perishable.

[c] Furnitures.

[d] Equipments.

The ethical principle of telling truth is known as

[a] Fidelity.

[b] Confidentiality.

[c] Veracity.

[d] Justice.

Which among the following is a written defamation ?

[a] Slander.

[b] Assault.

[c] Libel.

[d] Battery.

The factual statement of the duties and responsibilities of a specific job is known as

[a] Job description.

[b] Job specification.

[c] Job evaluation.

[d] Job rotation.

Collection, compilation, analysis and distribution of data related to important events termed as

[a] Survey.

[b] Surveillance.

[c] Census.

[d] Vital statistics.